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A question about Spanish present participles?

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Jimbo

A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

I think this question is going to show just how much of a beginner I am compared to everyone else here (and I miss the Duolingo sentence discussions where people around about my skill level were the majority).

OK, so for the Duolingo question ´She is buying me a ball´ I tried the (marked incorrect) answer ´Ella está comprándome un balón´ which, yes, I know wasn´t what Duolingo was looking for in that question but, when you're doing the 'restore' levels, trying to figure out what might be a different correct answer is half the fun.

So then I got to thinking about why it would be wrong, and then it occurred to me, past participles change according to gender (cansado/cansada, cerrado/cerrada etc.) so maybe the present ones do as well, and Ella denotes a female subject so maybe I needed 'compranda'?

Except 'Ella está comprándame un balón' was also marked wrong.

At that point I settled for ´Ella me compra un balón´ just to get through the exercise but that's left me still unsure on what the correct answer I was trying to go for would've been. Unless there's some reason continuous tense isn't valid in that sentence at all?

I know that Spanish present participles can't be use in translations of interchangeable sentences like 'I like running'/'I like to run' and if you get something like 'I'm eating at 5:30 this evening'/'I will be eating at 5:30 this evening' then translating it into Spanish present continuous tense would be wrong and I think future continuous tense would at best be technically correct but a lot less common than simple present or possibly a 'Voy a' construction? But I can't see how any of that applies to 'She is buying me a ball'?

Or is there some reason that I couldn't tack the object pronoun onto the participle the way I can with some other sentences and if I'd started it 'Me está' then I'd have had better luck?

So yeah, once again I'm filled with confusion.

Thanks to anyone who explains this.

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Corinnebelle

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Corinnebelle »

Hi [mention]Jimbo[/mention]! Welcome to Duome! [mention]luo-ning[/mention] designed a sentence discussion extension so we can continue the fun here. Of course not everyone is here, but the more merrier! You can read about it here. All the best in your language learning adventure! :D

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gscottoliver
United States of America

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gscottoliver »

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

…for the Duolingo question ´She is buying me a ball´ I tried the (marked incorrect) answer ´Ella está comprándome un balón´…

I don’t see anything wrong with that Spanish sentence, and neither does SpanishDict.

…when you're doing the 'restore' levels, trying to figure out what might be a different correct answer is half the fun.

Absolutely!

So then I got to thinking about why it would be wrong, and then it occurred to me, past participles change according to gender (cansado/cansada, cerrado/cerrada etc.) so maybe the present ones do as well, and Ella denotes a female subject so maybe I needed 'compranda'?

Nope, the -ndo endings are invariant. For more practice, try SpanishDict’s lessons here https://www.spanishdict.com/guide/pres ... in-spanish.

Unless there's some reason continuous tense isn't valid in that sentence at all?

Only maybe if it hasn’t been added to the list of valid answers, yet.

Or is there some reason that I couldn't tack the object pronoun onto the participle the way I can with some other sentences and if I'd started it 'Me está' then I'd have had better luck?

You could certainly try this. But if it’s a fairly early Unit, it may just be that the present participle variations aren’t in the list. Good question, and keep on learning!

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EranBarLev
Israel

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by EranBarLev »

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

OK, so for the Duolingo question ´She is buying me a ball´ I tried the (marked incorrect) answer ´Ella está comprándome un balón´ which, yes, I know wasn´t what Duolingo was looking for in that question but, when you're doing the 'restore' levels, trying to figure out what might be a different correct answer is half the fun.

I'm not sure about "balón". That's a false friend, in Hebrew it means "baloon", so I would rather use "pelota". Other than that your sentence looks correct to me.

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

So then I got to thinking about why it would be wrong, and then it occurred to me, past participles change according to gender (cansado/cansada, cerrado/cerrada etc.) so maybe the present ones do as well, and Ella denotes a female subject so maybe I needed 'compranda'?

No, the present participles don't change, and the form "compranda" doesn't exist.

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

Or is there some reason that I couldn't tack the object pronoun onto the participle the way I can with some other sentences and if I'd started it 'Me está' then I'd have had better luck?

Both "me está comprando" and "está comprándome" are correct.

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gmads
Mexico

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

so for the Duolingo question ´She is buying me a ball´ I tried the (marked incorrect) answer ´Ella está comprándome un balón´

The sentence, "Ella está comprándome un balón" is more than correct, it is the exact, word for word, translation for, "She is buying me a ball."

You could also separate the clitic from the verb and move it before it: "Ella me está comprando un balón" without affecting the meaning at all.

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

So then I got to thinking about why it would be wrong, and then it occurred to me, past participles change according to gender (cansado/cansada, cerrado/cerrada etc.) so maybe the present ones do as well, and Ella denotes a female subject so maybe I needed 'compranda'?

Except 'Ella está comprándame un balón' was also marked wrong.

They are the past participle, but in this case the words { cansado, cansada, cerrado, cerrada } are actually working as adjectives, and that is why they agree with the gender... and number of the person: { cansados, cansadas, cerrados, cerradas }. They are used in a similar way to English, but instead of the verb "to be," in Spanish we use the verb "estar," for example:

  • she is tired -- ella está cansada
  • the doors are closed -- las puertas están cerradas

When used as actual past participle verbs they are used with the auxiliary verb "haber," and it is in this precise case when they become invariable, that is, they do not agree with the gender or number of the person, and only the auxiliary is conjugated.

  • yo me he cansado -- I have gotten tired / I have become tired
  • ellas se han cansado -- they have gotten tired / they have become tired
  • las puertas se le han cerrado -- the doors have been closed to him
Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

At that point I settled for ´Ella me compra un balón´ just to get through the exercise but that's left me still unsure on what the correct answer I was trying to go for would've been. Unless there's some reason continuous tense isn't valid in that sentence at all?

Technically speaking, the sentence "ella me compra un balón" would be the translation for "she buys me a ball."

No, the continuous tense is perfectly valid.

Duolingo not accepting the actual correct translation is just Duolingo being Duolingo.

Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

I know that Spanish present participles can't be use in translations of interchangeable sentences like 'I like running'/'I like to run' and if you get something like 'I'm eating at 5:30 this evening'/'I will be eating at 5:30 this evening' then translating it into Spanish present continuous tense would be wrong and I think future continuous tense would at best be technically correct but a lot less common than simple present or possibly a 'Voy a' construction?

  • I like running -- me gusta correr

  • I like to run -- me gusta correr

  • I am running -- estoy corriendo

  • I'm eating at 5:30 this evening -- estaré comiendo a las 5:30 esta tarde

  • I will be eating at 5:30 this evening -- estaré comiendo a las 5:30 esta tarde

  • I will be eating at 5:30 this evening -- voy a comer a las 5:30 esta tarde


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Jimbo

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

Thanks a bunch everyone.

I'd thought that if 'comprándame' was a valid construction then I´d have come across something vaguely like it at some point earlier, but when 'comprándome' pinged as wrong I found myself wondering why that was and it was the least silly thing I could think of.

If it was just Duolingo being weird then that´s certainly going to be easier to remember, and I´ll have to remember to flag that question next time.

gscottoliver wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 2:35 am

You could certainly try this. But if it’s a fairly early Unit, it may just be that the present participle variations aren’t in the list. Good question, and keep on learning!

It was in Connection, just above the Tree 2 test, so yeah, fairly early.

gmads wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 3:48 am
Jimbo wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 12:51 am

So then I got to thinking about why it would be wrong, and then it occurred to me, past participles change according to gender (cansado/cansada, cerrado/cerrada etc.) so maybe the present ones do as well, and Ella denotes a female subject so maybe I needed 'compranda'?

Except 'Ella está comprándame un balón' was also marked wrong.

They are the past participle, but in this case the words { cansado, cansada, cerrado, cerrada } are actually working as adjectives, and that is why they agree with the gender... and number of the person: { cansados, cansadas, cerrados, cerradas }. They are used in a similar way to English, but instead of the verb "to be," in Spanish we use the verb "estar," for example:

  • she is tired -- ella está cansada
  • the doors are closed -- las puertas están cerradas

When used as actual past participle verbs they are used with the auxiliary verb "haber," and it is in this precise case when they become invariable, that is, they do not agree with the gender or number of the person, and only the auxiliary is conjugated.

  • yo me he cansado -- I have gotten tired / I have become tired
  • ellas se han cansado -- they have gotten tired / they have become tired
  • las puertas se le han cerrado -- the doors have been closed to him

Thank you. I haven't reached perfect tense yet (outside of random reading but not practicing on Spanishdict) so I hadn't realised they weren't always variable.

I will say Spanish perfect tense looks like it will be easier than the English - 'haber', 'tener' and 'tener que' are distinct enough that I don't think I'll get confused between them, but the English must be a nightmare for anyone trying to learn it. 'I have got to' has to be one of the hardest constructions for anyone learning English to figure out the different meanings of.

That said, are the reflexive pronouns needed in those sentences? To me, they're reading as 'I have tired myself', 'They have tired themselves' or possibly 'They have tired each other', and 'The doors have closed themselves to him', which I guess is because my brain is still reading them in the English structure and then translating at run time as it were.

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EranBarLev
Israel

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by EranBarLev »

gmads wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 3:48 am

When used as actual past participle verbs they are used with the auxiliary verb "haber," and it is in this precise case when they become invariable, that is, they do not agree with the gender or number of the person, and only the auxiliary is conjugated.

But if I'm not mistaken, when used as passive verbs with the auxiliary verb "ser", they do have to agree with the gender or number of the subject.

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gmads
Mexico

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

Hi [mention]Jimbo[/mention]

You are welcome.

Jimbo wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 1:33 am

That said, are the reflexive pronouns needed in those sentences? To me, they're reading as 'I have tired myself', 'They have tired themselves' or possibly 'They have tired each other', and 'The doors have closed themselves to him', which I guess is because my brain is still reading them in the English structure and then translating at run time as it were.

Both verbs, "cansarse" and "cerrarse" seem to be reflexive but they are not, they are actually pronominal verbs (of which the reflexive can be considered to be a particular case).

I wrote a brief, but hopefully useful, post about pronominal verbs. You may want to check it out and post back if you have any particular doubts.

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Cifi

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

gmads wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 10:24 am

Both verbs, "cansarse" and "cerrarse" seem to be reflexive but they are not, they are actually pronominal verbs (of which the reflexive can be considered to be a particular case).

I still kind of fail to see why these are not reflexive. Up to now I asked whether or not the person acted upon would be oneself, which is true for peinarse, lavarse, bañarse, but also for cansarse as far as I can tell.

In that other thread, you make the destinction based on transitive vs intransitive, but what do I do to find out while role a reflexive pronoun takes? Maybe with those verbs that have a non-pronominal form, we could compare that to tell?

Me lavo la cara - here, me looks like an indirect object. If I would wash someone else's face, it would be le lavo la cara (a mi hijo).

But if we use it without direct complement, simply Me lavo, I would have thought it is a direct object, like *lavo la ropa: la lavo?

And I would have thought cansar(se) can be used transitive with the one being made tired as a direct object, too:

Cansar a un perro en casa

So, what really is the key here?

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gmads
Mexico

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

EranBarLev wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:32 am
gmads wrote: Tue Jul 26, 2022 3:48 am

When used as actual past participle verbs they are used with the auxiliary verb "haber," and it is in this precise case when they become invariable, that is, they do not agree with the gender or number of the person, and only the auxiliary is conjugated.

But if I'm not mistaken, when used as passive verbs with the auxiliary verb "ser", they do have to agree with the gender or number of the subject.

Yes, in that case they also agree:

  • la puerta fue cerrada
  • las puertas fueron cerradas
  • el piso es lavado
  • los pisos son lavados
  • (speaking to a woman) eres entrenada
  • (speaking to a man) eres entrenado

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gmads
Mexico

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

Cifi wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:15 pm
gmads wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 10:24 am

Both verbs, "cansarse" and "cerrarse" seem to be reflexive but they are not, they are actually pronominal verbs (of which the reflexive can be considered to be a particular case).

I still kind of fail to see why these are not reflexive.

I can definitely relate to that :D

Spanish is my native language and eventhough I have always liked using it as correctly as possible, I had never actually reflected about pronominal verbs —one simply speaks one's native language without giving it too much thought— until I began learning Italian. While I spent quite a bit of time on this topic at the time, the truth is that sometimes I still have to take a time to ponder carefully to see what specific role a pronominal verb is playing.

Unless one really likes to delve into the grammatical aspects of a language, I'd say that the best course of action regarding this topic, is to simply look up the verb in a dictionary, determine which of the meanings is the one one wants to express, and then take note of the form of the verb that corresponds ;) Once a verb starts to be used in our everyday conversations, its usage will become second nature.

Anyway, having said that, and since I like to complicate my life trying to understand grammar, I will help you in this same endeavor :P

*********

Cifi wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:15 pm

Up to now I asked whether or not the person acted upon would be oneself, which is true for peinarse, lavarse, bañarse, but also for cansarse as far as I can tell.

First of all, I must say that the verb "cansar" can be a little tricky to explain because of its possible roles (e.g. as an affective verb) and meanings (e.g. to tire, to annoy). Thus, I will just focus on the "to tire/to get tired" meanings.

If one considers it, "cansar/cansarse" (to tire/to get tired) is actually the result of doing something else instead of being a true action, or something that can be done. Let's consider the following two sentences:

  1. cansé al muchacho por hacerlo correr un kilómetro (I tired the boy by making him run a kilometer)
  2. el muchacho se cansó tras correr un kilómetro (the boy got tired after running one kilometer)

Regardless of which verb was used (the regular, non-pronominal, verb "cansar" or the pronominal verb "cansarse") and how it was used (in a transitive way or in an intransitive way, respectively), we can see that in both of them the "tiring" so-called action is the result or what happened after the boy ran one kilometer, thus, in neither case a "tiring" action was truly done.

Let's see another example with this verb. If I say, "me cansé de estar sentado" ("I got tired of being sit"), that does not mean that "I tired myself," but that the action of being sit "got me tired. However, if I say, "me lavo todos los días" ("I wash myself everyday"), that actually means that there is a washing action that I do on myself.

A comparison with two similar verbs may help to see the workings between pronominal reflexive and pronominal non-reflexive verbs. Let's consider the pronominal Spanish verbs "levantarse" (with the specific meaning of "to get up from bed") and "despertarse" ("to wake up"). We can agree that "waking up" is not an actual reflexive action, but something that just happens at a particular moment during our sleep. However, "getting up" (not in the sense of rising oneself, but of making oneself leave one's bed) is definitely a reflexive action.

-- me desperté a las 7 de la mañana (I woke up at 7 in the morning) << pronominal, non-reflexive
-- me levanté diez minutos después (I got up ten minutes later) << pronominal, reflexive

*********

Cifi wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:15 pm

In that other thread, you make the destinction based on transitive vs intransitive

I said that because being aware of transitivity in a verb can help determine its function or how it can be used, or at least to get a good approximation of how it should be used.

The five usage cases I listed there are like the first general rules to be able to begin to understand how pronominal verbs work. Given the generality of the explanations, one can only move in one direction but not in the opposite; for example, one can say that women are humans, but one cannot say that humans are women. So, knowing that the verb "ahogarse" is a pronominal verb also lets me know that it then must be an intransitive verb, however, to know that a verb is intransitive only allows for the possibility of it being also pronominal.

*********

Cifi wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:15 pm

what do I do to find out while role a reflexive pronoun takes? Maybe with those verbs that have a non-pronominal form, we could compare that to tell?

Me lavo la cara - here, me looks like an indirect object. If I would wash someone else's face, it would be le lavo la cara (a mi hijo).

But if we use it without direct complement, simply Me lavo, I would have thought it is a direct object, like *lavo la ropa: la lavo?

Regarding the pronouns:

  • If we know that a verb is used reflexively, we also know that the clitics { me, te, etc } are reflexive pronouns, and that they work as the direct or the indirect object pronoun of the sentence. The following sentences are not grammatically correct, but I am allowing myself to be as literal as possible to transmit the idea:
    -- yo me lavo = yo lavo a mí
    -- tú te lavas la cara = tú lavas la cara a ti
  • If we know that a verb is a pronominal non-reflexive verb, we then know that the clitics are just the required form of the "se" particle once it gets separated from the verb and gets conjugated according to the grammatical person:
    -- ahogarse
    -- yo me ahogo
    -- tú te ahogas, etc
    but they do not represent neither the direct nor the indirect object of the sentence, that is, the sentence, "yo me ahogo," doesn't mean, "yo ahogo a mí," because "me" is only a particle, so to speak, that is part of the verb.

Once again, as I am trying to make clear the topic in question, some of the following sentences are not 100% correct.

-- lavo la pared (I wash the wall) -- "la pared" is the direct object
-- la lavo (I wash it) -- "la" is the direct object pronoun

-- lavo al niño (I wash the boy) -- "al niño" is the direct object
-- lo lavo (I wash him) -- "lo" is the direct object pronoun

-- lavo a mí mismo todas las mañanas (I wash myself every morning) -- "a mí mismo" is the direct object
-- me lavo todas las mañanas (I wash myself every morning) --"me" is the reflexive pronoun (direct object pronoun)

-- lavo las manos al niño (I wash the hands of the boy) -- "las manos" is the direct object, and "al niño" is the indirect object
-- le lavo las manos (I wash his hands) -- "le" is the indirect object pronoun

-- lavo las manos a mí mismo (I wash the hands of myself) -- "las manos" is the direct object, and "a mí mismo" is the indirect object
-- me lavo las manos (I wash my hands) -- "me" is the reflexive pronoun (indirect object pronoun)

-- casi te ahogas en el río (you almost drowned in the river) -- "te" is the clitic pronoun (second person, singular) from the "se" part of the verb ("ahogarse")

*********

Cifi wrote: Wed Jul 27, 2022 3:15 pm

So, what really is the key here?

I would say that in order to deduce or know how a verb is being used in a particular sentence, the key is to take into account not only its grammatical aspects, but also its meaning. As I mentioned in the post I thereafter wrote in the referenced thread, the meaning of a verb can change radically between one use and the other (transitive/intransitive), and it is this meaning what lets us know if the verb is being used reflexively or not.

Let's take again the verb "levantarse," but now with the sense or meaning of "protruding from a surface or a plane," for example:

-- los árboles se levantaban sobre el horizonte (the trees rose above the horizon)

At first instance, it could seem that the trees were rising themselves above the horizon —thus leading one to believe that the verb is being used in a reflexive way—, but that is not the case because in this particular sentence the verb is just letting us know that the trees were visible above the horizon, therefore, in this sense the verb is just a pronominal non-reflexive verb.

So, another key to all this is just to be aware that there is a general category that consists of the so-called pronominal verbs, that within this group there is a set of verbs that can be used in a reflexive way, and that it is not possible to determine that quality by just looking at their form because they look the same (me despierto, te despiertas, me levanto, te levantas), therefore, one needs to focus on their meaning.

Another key aspect worth considering is that reflexive verbs designate voluntary actions that a living being does on himself/herself, while non-reflexive verbs usually express movement, thoughts, feelings, changes of state, impersonal or involuntary events, or the state of being of things.

-- el sol se esconde tras las nubes (the sun hides behind the clouds)

-- no es bueno que te enojes por eso (it is not good that you get angry about that)

-- la puerta se abrió sorpresivamente (the door suddenly opened)

-- los niños se fueron a dormir temprano (the children went to sleep early)

-- ustedes se acordaron de mi cumpleaños (you remembered my birthday)

-- él se imaginaba descansando en la playa (he imagined himself resting on the beach)

-- tu comida se enfría y tú sigues sin venir a la mesa (your food gets cold and you keep on not coming to the table)

-- el florero se cayó de la mesa y se rompió en mil pedazos (the vase fell off the table and broke into a thousand pieces)

-- incluso los adultos se confundieron con ese truco de magia (even adults were confused by that magic trick)

-- de repente se soltó el aguacero y me empapé hasta los huesos (suddenly the downpour broke out and I got soaked to the bone)

As I initially said at the referred post: "'Pronominal verbs' make up a large and relatively complex topic" :lol:

¡Ánimo!


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Jimbo

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

OK, I tried to post something, but I don't know if there was a connection issue or what but somehow I'd got logged out and it failed. So, brief retry.

I realised earlier that the obvious English translations of "yo me he cansado" and "ellas se han cansado" are themselves reflexive or reciprocal (though the ones given are also possible) - "I've tired myself out" and "They tire themselves/each other out" and I think all perfect tense constructions of 'To tire' might need to state an object (reflexive or otherwise) of some description, but when 'tired' is paired with other verbs they don't (e.g. "I grow tired"). Also, when it's a main verb it defaults to 'unto oneself' without any pronouns (e.g. "I tire", "You tire") but that would be a rare word choice and usually someone would state an object ("I tire him out", "You tire yourself out").

And no, while I sort of instinctively understand what the 'out' is doing in those sentences, I can't really explain it and I don't know how it originated (but if I was forced to blind-guess I'd say it related to the 'empty' use of the word).

(I'm getting a bit ahead of myself on the replies here, but since I started learning Spanish I've had to start thinking rather harder about the intricacies of my native English too.)

So 'cansar' is 'to tire' and 'cansarse' is 'to get tired', and 'cerrar' is 'to close' and 'cerrarse' is 'to be closed'? That's sorta what I take from all that.

And I was surprised about 'atreverse' or 'to dare' being an always pronominal verb, and that led me to thinking about what "He dares to hug her" would be (assuming it's the 'be brave enough to attempt' use of 'dare' rather than the 'issue a challenge to do something, usually embarrassing' usage). I was thinking "Se atreve a abrazarle" on the basis that 'to hug' would be the direct object, 'her' would be the indirect object, and with the 'a' in the middle (needed because of the intransitive nature of 'atreverse' {I hope I got that right}) I doubt it could be moved to the front though I'm really not sure about that.

And then Spanish Dict told me I should've used 'la' instead of 'le' for some reason and I cannot see why.

So anyway, forget 'any particular doubts', I've managed to confuse myself and dug myself a well of them.

And about the passive verbs still being variable - is there any circumstance where that could hypothetically happen with the present participles too (my thought was "The race is being run by the competitors")?

Or maybe if they functioned as variable adjectives if next to verbs other than 'Estar'? Something like "They finish running"? (And then I wondered if Spanish would change that to something like "They're completing their run" just to ensure the present participles weren't used with verbs other than 'Estar'?)

Anyway, I'm sorry that that looks rushed, my first attempt was better set out and had quotes and everything but yeah…

And thanks again, and again thanks in advance.

Last edited by Jimbo on Thu Jul 28, 2022 5:05 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Corinnebelle

Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Corinnebelle »

[mention]Jimbo[/mention] Duome, will sign you out pretty quick if you don't check the box keep me signed in [Remember me]. That said if you have that problem when trying to post, sign in and then hit the back arrow button for your history, your post should still be there.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

Hang on, I believe I've figured out where I went wrong with the le/la thing. 'To hug'/'Abrazar' isn't the direct object is it, it's part of a compound verb, which means 'her' is a direct object after all and thus 'la'.

I got confused by the use of gerunds (in the English sense of 'verbs acting as nouns') being used as direct objects in sentences like "Me gusta comer" and so got caught out by the use of an infinitive as an actual verb.

(And editing because this isn't worth making a new post for - comer in that example is of course a subject isn't it? I therefore submit the very similar "Disfruto comer".)

Although now I'm wondering what "I dare him to hug her" would be (although that would obviously be 'dare' in the 'challenge' sense). (Looks through dictionary and adjusts for the fact that my first guess looked stupid). "Lo desafío que él la abrazaría" which I think is literally "I challenge him that he should hug her"? That's probably wrong but it's the only thing I can think of.

Corinnebelle wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 5:09 am

@Jimbo Duome, will sign you out pretty quick if you don't check the box keep me signed. That said if you have that problem when trying to post, sign in and then hit the back arrow button for your history, your post should still be there.

I haven´t seen a ´keep me signed´ button, but I´ll remember the thing about signing in and then hitting back. Thank you.

Last edited by Jimbo on Thu Jul 28, 2022 8:43 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Corinnebelle »

[mention]Jimbo[/mention] It's the first tick box and it says Remember me. You can see it below the two blank spaces here:

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

And now I´ve remembered that 'abrazaría' isn't 'should hug' but rather 'would hug', so based on that I'm changing my guess to "Lo desafío que él la debe abrazar" which is still probably wrong, but does at least say what I thought it did.

Corinnebelle wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 7:09 am

@Jimbo It's the first tick box and it says Remember me. You can see it below the two blank spaces here:

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Thanks again.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

Jimbo wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 6:57 am

Although now I'm wondering what "I dare him to hug her" would be (although that would obviously be 'dare' in the 'challenge' sense). (Looks through dictionary and adjusts for the fact that my first guess looked stupid). "Lo desafío que él la abrazaría" which I think is literally "I challenge him that he should hug her"? That's probably wrong but it's the only thing I can think of.

I am just a fellow learner, so I am not sure it is correct, but I would have used an infinitive (as you did in English):

Lo desafío a abrazarla.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

Thank you for your detailed explanation, [mention]gmads[/mention]

So, it's basically the degree of activity, or how planned/purposeful an action is?

I remember an old discussion about cerrarse on the Duolingo forums that may fit in here:

https://duolingo.hobune.stream/comment/53126153

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

Cifi wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 8:55 am
Jimbo wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 6:57 am

Although now I'm wondering what "I dare him to hug her" would be (although that would obviously be 'dare' in the 'challenge' sense). (Looks through dictionary and adjusts for the fact that my first guess looked stupid). "Lo desafío que él la abrazaría" which I think is literally "I challenge him that he should hug her"? That's probably wrong but it's the only thing I can think of.

I am just a fellow learner, so I am not sure it is correct, but I would have used an infinitive (as you did in English):

Lo desafío a abrazarla.

Ah. I wasn't sure what you could do if you had two verbs in the same clause, each with different subjects and objects, so I had to go with the more round-about construction. Like I said, I thought I was probably wrong.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

Jimbo wrote: Fri Jul 29, 2022 12:59 am

Ah. I wasn't sure what you could do if you had two verbs in the same clause, each with different subjects and objects, so I had to go with the more round-about construction. Like I said, I thought I was probably wrong.

No, I was by no means saying you were wrong. Actually your strategy is exactly what is recommended to beginners: when there's a change in subject, it's safer to use a dependent clause in Spanish, because there are sentences like "I want you to do xy", where infinitive constructions work in English, but are incorrect in Spanish.

It's just that if it's possible to say it either way, I'd prefer the infinitive because it's simpler as you don't need to deal with tenses or moods.

Last edited by Cifi on Sun Sep 25, 2022 6:43 am, edited 1 time in total.

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gmads
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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

Hi, @Cifi , you are welcome.

Cifi wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 10:00 am

Thank you for your detailed explanation, @gmads

So, it's basically the degree of activity, or how planned/purposeful an action is?

Regarding reflexive verbs I'd say one needs to start with a regular (non-pronominal) version of the verb and then check:

  1. if the verb is transitive
  2. if there is will (volition, determination) in the action
  3. if it is a physical action
  4. if the pronominal version mantains the intended meaning

Take for instance the verb "esconder" (to hide).

  1. can the hiding action be done unto others, thus, unto oneself? yes
  2. is the hiding action a voluntary action? yes
  3. is the hiding action a physical action? yes

Given the affirmative answers to each criteria, we could then say that we can apply a reflexive usage to the verb "esconder," therefore, we only need add the suffix "-se" (to get the pronominal version of the verb) and conjugate it as required: esconder --> esconderse. Finally, (4) does "esconderse" have the same intended meaning as "esconder?" Yes:

  1. tr. encubrir (‖ ocultar). U. t. c. prnl.
  2. tr. Retirar a alguien o algo a lugar o sitio secreto. U. t. c. prnl.

// U. t. c. prnl. = Usado también como pronominal (also used as a pronominal)

-- el niño se escondió debajo de la cama (the child hid under the bed)
-- me escondí bajo las cobijas (I hid under the covers)

If one checks, for example, the verb "suicidarse" (to commit suicide), from the very start we see that this is a pronominal verb and that it doesn't have a regular version: the verb, "suicidar" does not exist. As a consequence, this verb cannot be reflexive, even if the action is voluntary and physical and done unto onself (but not unto others).

Cifi wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 10:00 am

I remember an old discussion about cerrarse on the Duolingo forums that may fit in here:

https://duolingo.hobune.stream/comment/53126153

The answer to the question, "Why is the se needed here?" is simple: because there is a change of state, they are going from being closed to being open.

If one checks the definition of abrir:

  1. tr. Descubrir o hacer patente lo que está cerrado u oculto. Abrir una caja. Abrir un aposento. U. t. c. prnl.

One sees that "abrir" ("to open") means: "hacer que algo deje de estar cerrado" ("to make something unclosed"), therefore, the pronominal version, "abrirse" must mean: "dejar de estar cerrado" ("to stop being closed").

The comment, "Abrirse is to open by its own as opossed to abrir, that it needs someone/something performing the action and something being opened," is both irrelevant (as the reason has to do with a grammatical aspect) and incorrect (a door cannot open by itself).

There is not actual difference between "la puerta abre al jardín" and "la puerta se abre al jardín," as both express the idea that the door "opens onto" or "gives way" to the garden, however, as shown at the context.reverso.net page, the latter is the most common way to express it. Actually, in Spanish, it would be best to say, "la puerta da al jardin."

Regarding your question, "I think it might be possible here, too?" the answer is no: "*El capó no se cierra bien, deberías revisarlo."


I think it will be best if I write an explanatory post both on the subject itself and on what I have explained so far.


:hash:  ㆍespañol ㆍgramática

Last edited by gmads on Mon May 08, 2023 8:24 pm, edited 2 times in total.

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gmads
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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by gmads »

Jimbo wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 5:01 am

So anyway, forget 'any particular doubts', I've managed to confuse myself and dug myself a well of them.

I'd say that maybe you are going way too fast... at leat that's the impression I get ;)

Cheers!

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

gmads wrote: Sat Jul 30, 2022 5:23 pm
Jimbo wrote: Thu Jul 28, 2022 5:01 am

So anyway, forget 'any particular doubts', I've managed to confuse myself and dug myself a well of them.

I'd say that maybe you are going way too fast... at leat that's the impression I get ;)

Cheers!

Perhaps, but nothing is worse for learning than being afraid to guess and get things wrong, and if I wait for Duolingo to teach me these things, I'll never get there.

(Plus, there are things that Duolingo's really bad at teaching. For example I think it was lucky that I learned the word 'vuestro' elsewhere and so didn't get confused over 'tus' and 'tuyos' the way that {it seems from the sentence discussions} everybody else did. Yes I'm pretty sure 'vuestro' isn't used much in the branch of Spanish that Duolingo teaches, but it really is a needed step in understanding the constructions of 'multiple objects owned by single you' versus 'single object owned by group you' as the ambiguity of 'sus' taking both the usted and ustedes forms makes it kind of useless in that regard.)

Cifi wrote: Fri Jul 29, 2022 10:17 am
Jimbo wrote: Fri Jul 29, 2022 12:59 am

Ah. I wasn't sure what you could do if you had two verbs in the same clause, each with different subjects and objects, so I had to go with the more round-about construction. Like I said, I thought I was probably wrong.

No, I was by no means saying you were wrong. Actually your strategy is exactly what is recommended to beginners: when there's a change in subject, it's safer to use a dependent clause in Spanish, because there are sentences like "I want you to do xy", where infinitive construction work in English, but are incorrect in Spanish.

It's just that if it's possible to say it either way, I'd prefer the infinitive because it's simpler as you don't need to deal with tenses or moods.

So in the interests of being willing to fail spectacularly, let's take a guess at "I want you to do xy" using everything I've read but not practiced before, and a handy conjugation chart from Spanish411.

"Quiero que hagas xy" (or haga, hagáis, hagan or… my conjugation chart doesn't cover how to construct the vos form but I think I read somewhere that it's the same as the 'tú' form in quite a few tense/mood combinations so I'm going to guess at 'hagas' again?)?

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

I was drilled the conjugations including vosotros decades ago, and when I first came across sentences like "¡Niños, salgan de aquí!" I was puzzled why someone would be so formal with minors, not being aware that 3rd person plural is used almost everywhere in America.

But I got used to it quickly, and now vosotros conjugation is my weakest area :(

As far as I can tell, your sentence "Quiero que hagas xy" is perfectly fine. I'm not familiar with vos conjugation though.

Last edited by Cifi on Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:24 am, edited 1 time in total.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

And going backwards from a conjugated verb to its root in order to figure out what it means is something I'm not very good at (I imagine that comes with practice), so again with a high chance of failure, "Children, leave here!"? (Imperative present 3rd person plural of 'salir' - the 'ustedes' version?)

And yay, I got something right!

All, I can say is, https://spanish411.net/resources/Spanis ... Tenses.pdf is a really good resource for helping to work out how to do things. (Even though it does miss the continuous tense that was the original topic of this thread).

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

Jimbo wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:10 am

And yay, I got something right!

:)

And again:

Jimbo wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:10 am

Imperative present 3rd person plural of 'salir' - the 'ustedes' version?

Exactly!

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

Cifi wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 6:55 am

I was drilled the conjugations including vosotros decades ago, and when I first came across sentences like "¡Niños, salgan de aquí!" I was puzzled why someone would be so formal with minors, not being aware that 3rd person plural is used almost everywhere in America.

To be fair, something similar happened in English a long time ago with its 2nd person singular. 'You' used to be the 2nd person plural pronoun, but then, as was in vogue at the time, it took root as a 'polite singular' term ('ustedes' isn't really a good comparison here though as it and 'usted' are distinct from each other, so it's more like 'vous' or 'εσείς'), except it then started to lose that politeness, which had the effect of pushing the actual 2nd person singular pronoun pair - 'thou' and 'thee' - into increasing levels of disrespect until (with it having eventually more or less degraded to being the 17th century equivalent of calling someone an 'it') it was largely abandoned.

The difference was, the abandonment of 'thou' was near universal while Spanish speaking world seems to pick and mix. I am really curious as to how Spanish ended up with singular and plural 2nd person pronouns, one looking like the obvious plural of the other, each only in use of opposite sides of the world?

(In the few places where a variant of 'thou' is still used, the insulting aspects are gone and it's back to having the sense of friendliness that informal pronouns are meant to have.)

Cifi wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:52 am
Jimbo wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:10 am

And yay, I got something right!

:)

And again:

Jimbo wrote: Thu Aug 04, 2022 7:10 am

Imperative present 3rd person plural of 'salir' - the 'ustedes' version?

Exactly!

Yay. :D

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Cifi »

I remember having read something about how the courtesy forms usted and ustedes evolved. I vaguely remember something along the lines of vuestra merced (your mercy, perhaps similar to your honour) and vuestras mercedes.

Anyway, I don't know anything about the loss of vosotros in many countries.

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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by Jimbo »

That's interesting - 'Vuestra' is a plural-you 'your' after all. I wonder if that means Spanish used to have the 'plural you used as polite singular' too, before settling on 'Usted'?

"As your lordship wishes" and of course the infamous "May it please your majesty to know that I have neither eyes to see nor ears to hear…". They're anachronistic phrases (and in the latter case, one that despite it's apparent politeness was in fact telling the king to get lost) but they make sense in English, and I'm fairly sure similar constructions were in use elsewhere so I can certainly believe Spain would've had one too.

Although the English version is steeped in feudal classism and not used when addressing equals the way the Spanish 'usted' is (but yes, is used when addressing judges) - it's interesting to see how different languages evolve in vaguely similar yet different ways.

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elizadeux
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Re: A question about Spanish present participles?

Post by elizadeux »

Jimbo - Vuestra/o (yours familiar plural) and vosotros (you familiar plural) are used in Spain.

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