Chefjan17 wrote:
If in Biblical Hebrew there were no vowel points used originally, how would we know today to pronounce Abraham, for example, as Avraham with a v. Why isn't it Abraham?
When I look at transliterations of names from Scripture I see no consistency. For example, Baalzebub. I have seen this transliterated as Baal Zevuv. Why wouldn't the B in Baal be a V as in Zevuv, or Zevuv left as Bs.
It's interesting to note that in modern Hebrew the B has the dagesh to give it the B sound, and without it is a V. And since no dagesh was used originally in Scripture why aren't all words pronounced with a V and not a B?
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