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I translated "we love visiting our grandparents" to "nos encanta visitar a los abuelos".
I agree that it's not a literal translation, but I thought this would be something reasonably natural to say in Spanish, or am I wrong about this?
Isn't it normally understood that the speaker is referring to their own rather than someone else's grandparents?
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(If there are errors in what I'm writing in either language, please do correct me - I'll never take it as offense or something like that.)
Yes, visiting “the” grandparents, makes sense in English and it would be understood to mean your own grandparents, not someone else’s. BUT, that’s not the sentence you were asked to translate into Spanish!
Native: British Scottish. Learning: French ,German ,Spanish
gmads
I thought this would be something reasonably natural to say in Spanish
Indeed it is! You are completely right in your assumption.
I'd say we tend to use an article when refering to more than one family member (e.g. ayer fui a visitar a los abuelos), and a possessive otherwise (e.g. ayer fui a visitar a mi abuela). Of course there would no problem in saying, ayer fui a visitar a mis abuelos, nor, ayer fui a visitar a la abuela. Unless there is complementary info (e.g. ayer fui a visitar a la abuela de mi novia) it is always understood that one talks about one's own family members.
We also use an article with body parts, for example, me lastimé la mano, me raspé la rodilla, me duele el estómago.
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