Explorer wrote: Sun Apr 23, 2023 2:37 pm
We cannot ignore that fact. But it's not just the Romans. Unfortunately, it's human history itself. There were slaves in the civilizations that emerged in Mesopotamia. There were slaves in ancient Egypt and Greece. There were slaves in the Roman Empire, and there were also slaves in China. And the great American civilizations like the Mayas or the Incas were not exempt either.
So, there is a lot to unpack here. The term 'slavery' can mean different things in different contexts.
Ancient Mesopotamia: one could be sold into slavery for one's debts, or sell own wife or child into slavery. That, however, was a form of indentured servitude, as the slaves were freed after paying off debt (see law # 117 of the Hammurabi's law code; interestingly, in the Biblical version of the same law a daughter could be sold as a slave/concubine basically indefinitely, and freed only if severely mistreated). There were legal safeguards for slaves; I cannot find the source now but I remember reading about some Sumerian tablets with court proceedings, where the slave sued his owner, and won in court.
Things became less peachy in Mesopotamia as the time progressed and social classes solidified - by 500 BC slavery was pretty much an established institution as we know it today (Baker 2001, free pdf download from JSTOR). By then, a lot of slaves would be captured prisoners of war/foreigners (again, the Bible also shows that aspect when it talks about owning foreign slaves).
Ancient Egypt: slavery was not a thing at the beginning. Contrary to popular beliefs, pyramids were NOT built by slaves (don't take my word for it, but take Zahi Hawass' word; I can't find a free copy of his 1997 article "Tombs of the pyramid builders" and I don't remember how I can attach a pdf here, but here is a link to Discover Magazine summary). Early slaves were basically prisoners of war/foreigners. Again, things became less peachy as the time progressed. Egypt's New Kingdom was a militaristic expansionist empire, and with that came a greater emphasis on slavery. This is a good article on how slavery developed over time in Ancient Egypt (the pdf download is free).
The Incas did not have an institution of slavery. On the other hand, it was pretty much a communist regime (state owned everything that its citizens produced) so I suppose you could argue that everyone was a slave. 
The Mayans did not have slaves, either. You were either elite or a commoner, with some middle class (who would be legally perceived as commoners but live better because of their craft skills; Sommerville et al. 2013).
The Aztecs had slaves, but very limited numbers, and in the earlier meaning: prisoners of war or people sold for their debts. The status of an Aztec slave was not hereditary (the child of a slave was free); one of many ways out of slavery was marrying one's owner, which automatically made the slave free. From our point of view, the worst thing that could happen to an Aztec slave was getting sacrificed for the Aztec gods, but back then, most sacrificial victims actually believed that was a good thing and went willingly, because religious brainwashing is a real thing (Seus 1969; free pdf download; slavery is discussed on page 739).
I don't know much about ancient Greek slavery, but the Romans created the meaning of slavery as we know it today: no legal safeguards, no agency, complete dehumanization of a human being, and making slaves the foundation of the whole economy.
EDIT:
*** I have just realized that I have a free access to the JSTOR links above because of a library access, but if anyone has trouble accessing the sources and wants them, some of them should be freely findable on scholar.google.com , and I can share pdfs of everything else.